This is a follow up to two previous articles. First, to my article "I John 5:1 Again" (here). Second, to my article "Rebutting Hardshell Arguments (2)" (here). In the former article I gave another text where we have a case where a present participle is used with a perfect verb in order to show that those who argue that the perfect verb shows that the action of the participle is a result of the verb. I showed where Romans 13: 8 shows that such is not the case. In the latter article I cited from some "Primitive" (Hardshell) elders who wrote a lengthy defense of Hardshell doctrine and examined several texts that they used to try to say that they taught that regeneration preceded faith because of the structure of having a present tense participle and a perfect tense verb. However, these elders stated what was not true about the texts they used. One such example is in these words of their polemic:
"B. John 3:36, "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life..." Again, "believeth" is present tense and "hath" is past tense. Thus everlasting life (new birth) precedes belief."
I responded by saying:
No, "believeth" is a present tense participle (the one who is believing) in the active voice and "hath" (has) is not a past tense verb in the Greek but is also a present tense indicative active.
They did the same thing in a couple other passages, which I corrected. Shortly, I will give examples from another Hardshell Baptist who has done the same distortion of scripture on the same point. First, however, I want to give a couple other examples where a present participle and a perfect tense verb are used and structured like I John 5:1 and yet do not teach that the action of the verb preceded and caused the action of the participle.
Example Number One
The first new example comes from the same chapter, where John writes:
"He who does not believe (present participle) God has made (perfect tense) Him a liar; because he believes not the record that God gave of his Son." (I John 5: 10)
The action of disbelieving results in the state of treating God as a liar. Surely it does not mean that the unbelievers made God a liar and this is what caused them to not believe. Rather, it means that by their unbelieving that they made God a liar.
Example Number Two
"he who is believing (present participle) in Him is not judged (present tense verb), but he who is not believing (present participle) has been judged (perfect tense) already, because he has not believed (perfect tense verb) in the Name of the only begotten Son of God." (Literal Standard Version)
Here we see where the "not believing" is a present participle and is the cause of having been judged (condemned) and "has been judged" is a perfect tense. So, which came first? Some of those who teach regeneration before faith will say that the condemnation preceded the not believing and caused it and say that the word "already" shows that. But, that cannot be because Christ says that the unbelievers are condemned "BECAUSE he has not believed." So, clearly, the condemnation was the result of not believing. That being the case, the perfect tense in this case does not mean that the condemnation preceded the not believing. The word "already" is also translated as "now." So, Christ is saying that the ones who are unbelieving are now under condemnation because of their unbelief. So, the perfect tense does not, in this text, affirm that the condemnation preceded the non-believing.
In an Internet article titled "Grammar of Regeneration" (See here) we see this same kind of ignorance and misrepresentation of the biblical text by one who, like the Hardshells, insist that regeneration precedes faith. The author of that article, who appears to be Elder Jonathan Crosby of the Greenville Baptist Church of South Carolina, a church that used to be a "Primitive Baptist Church" and which I was invited to preach for back in the late 1970s. Sometime afterward they seem to have dropped the adjective "primitive" from the name of their church. I assume this is because their pastor, Elder Crosby, taught that Jesus being the Son of God had to do strictly with his being a created being, denying the eternal sonship of Christ. Back around 2008 when I first began to write in blogs I had one of Crosby's followers write to me and tell me that Crosby far exceeded me in biblical knowledge and that I could never measure up to him, and would lose in a debate with him. I told that brother to "bring it on," that I would debate him any time on the eternal sonship of Christ or other important issues.
The article appears on the church's web page titled "Let God Be True." The author of the article does not give his name, which is the case with all the articles I have seen on the web page. But, I assume it was written by Elder Crosby. As the reader will see, Crosby falsifies information on the tenses of participles and verbs just as did the three elders who wrote the polemic for the web page of the Denton Primitive Baptist Church. I find it highly ironic that Crosby would title his polemic "Grammar of Regeneration" and then butcher the grammar of the texts he focuses upon. Crosby wrote (emphasis mine):
"1 Corinthians 1:18 “For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.”
A. Only those who “are saved” (perfect tense, passive voice) perceive the gospel as glorious.
B. Those perishing do not profit by hearing the gospel; it is foolishness to them (II Cor 4:3).
C. The language is clear – a perfect tense “are saved” and a present tense “is” perceived – indicates that salvation occurred prior to the gospel being perceived as the power of God.
D. Paul used verb tenses here to show the gospel only benefits those already saved (called).
E. God must call a man in order for the gospel to make sense to that man (I Cor 1:22-24).
F. It is a travesty men use this verse as if the gospel were the conditional means of salvation."
Wrong! "are saved" is a present tense participle and is often translated as those who "are being saved." The Greek word for "is" (estin) is likewise present tense, though a verb and not a participle.
"Indicates that salvation occurred prior to the gospel" being preached? Are you kidding me? Would that not contradict what the new testament says in many texts? Such as when Paul said that the "gospel is the power of God UNTO salvation"? (Rom. 1:16)
Crosby wrote:
"Acts 10:35 “But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.”
A. This text has to do with justification, not regeneration; but is it conditional at all?
B. He that feareth (singular, present tense) is accepted with Him (singular, perfect tense).
C. He that worketh righteousness (singular, present tense) is accepted (singular, perfect)."
However, this is wrong. The word "accepted" is an adjective and means the one who is acceptable. The word "is" (Greek "estin") is present tense, not perfect tense, and so "is acceptable" is present tense.
Crosby wrote:
"Acts 13:39 “And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the Law of Moses.”
A. This text has to do with justification, not regeneration; but is it conditional at all?
B. All that “believe” (plural, present tense) “are justified” (plural, perfect tense). Glory!"
Wrong again! "believe" is present tense. However "justified" is likewise present tense, not perfect.
Why do Hyper Calvinists such as the Hardshell Baptists work so hard to make the Bible say that people are saved apart from the gospel and faith in it?
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